I guess Republican voted against legal crony capitalism or corruption, which is rampant in socialism.
How much Buffett owns the IRS?
How many millionaires want to be taxed more? 30? 50? Out of that number, how many made millions on the government contracts?
Get a grip people. How come some millionaires are better than others?
Soros – a good guy. Romney – a bad guy. Both guys make their money the same way. Investing.
Soros gives 10% for political causes. Romney gives 10% to charity.
Republicans reject 'Buffett rule' in the Senate
Mopeder
2012/04/17 00:06:52
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87 votes
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71 votes
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Read More: http://www.latimes.com/news/politics/la-pn-republi...
Top Opinion
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Willl 2012/04/17 01:08:08The rich can't afford to pay more, they are taxed enough.



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All but one Democrated voted against it. So did you have a relevant point or what?
http://www.washingtonpost.com...
Democrats were unable to get the 60 votes necessary to break a filibuster and proceed to a full consideration of the measure, with the Senate voting 51 to 45 to move ahead. The vote was largely along party lines, although Republican Sen. Susan Collins (Maine) voted with Democrats to allow the measure to proceed and Democratic Sen. Mark Pryor (Ark.) voted to block it..
All but one Democrated voted against it. So did you have a relevant point or what?
http://www.washingtonpost.com...
Democrats were unable to get the 60 votes necessary to break a filibuster and proceed to a full consideration of the measure, with the Senate voting 51 to 45 to move ahead. The vote was largely along party lines, although Republican Sen. Susan Collins (Maine) voted with Democrats to allow the measure to proceed and Democratic Sen. Mark Pryor (Ark.) voted to block it..
But it is strictly a political poly for every account to lead with "Republicans Block". Especially since the vote was bipartisan.
bi·par·ti·san [bahy-pahr-tuh-zuhn]
adjective
representing, characterized by, or including members from two parties or factions:
http://dictionary.reference.c...
There is no required number to certify bipartisan. The fact that there is votes on one side from both parties MAKES it bipartisan!
It only "requires"; "characterized by, or including members from two parties or factions:", which in this case occurred.
"specifically : marked by or involving cooperation, agreement, and compromise between two major political parties"
Here's the Washington Post Political glossary:
"Lawmakers from two different political parties working together to pass legislation or to meet a mutual goal."
What you saw with the bill in question was PARTISAN politics. Meaning that the two parties were ANTAGONISTIC on the bill, not working together.
For the vote to have been bi-partisan they would either have had to agree and pass the bill together or both disagree and vote it down. That was the exact opposite of what happened. Do you understand now?
The citations you made on the definition of bipartison do nothing to even weaken my case.
First; you use the term "specifically" in characterizing the vote as partisan. The fact that members of the opposing party voted with the opposition that is clearly false.
Second; "marked by or involving cooperation, agreement, and compromise between two major political parties". The fact that a member of each opposed party "cooperated" with their opposition, supports bipartisan.
Third; "Lawmakers from two different political parties working together to pass legislation or to meet a mutual goal." Again members of the opposed parties worked with their opposition to meet a mutual goal. Again supporting the bipartisan nature of the vote!!
Of course I'm asking about the vote. The vote is all that matters. That's what shows whether a bill has partisan or bi-partisan support.
"So the Act was written by ONE Democrat & ONE Republican. According to you this is not bipartison."
I can't claim one way or the other until I see the vote.
"The fact that members of the opposing party voted with the opposition that is clearly false."
If a bill vote has every member but one of each party on opposing sides of the vote, that is the very definition of partisan politics.
"The fact that a member of each opposed party "cooperated" with their opposition, supports bipartisan."
And you ignore the fact that EVERY OTHER MEMBER of each party voted along strict party lines. Seriously, the fact that you believe this to be bi-partisan would be laughable if it wasn't so pathetic.
"Again members of the opposed parties worked with their opposition to meet a mutual goal."
Really? Then why'd they vote almost unanimously AGAINST each other? That's not cooperation, that's antagonism. The polar opposite of bi-partisan.
..No it is not, it is the very opposite as it has support from the opposition party.
"And you ignore the fact that EVERY OTHER MEMBER of each party voted along strict party lines."
..I, unlike some, ignored nothing. Note that in order to express "strict party lines" requires removing the opposition party votes.
"Seriously, the fact that you believe this to be bi-partisan would be laughable if it wasn't so pathetic."
..It meets the definition! Even the ones you presented.
"Then why'd they vote almost unanimously AGAINST each other? "
..Again, it is necessary for you to qualify your statement with "almost".
Posted by Ezra Klein at 03:56 PM ET, 04/17/2012
The House recently rejected a version of the Simpson-Bowles plan, 382-38. But Simpson-Bowles is from 2010 where the committee that was supposed to produce this product all rejected Simpson-Bowles.
How do you call having every Republican but one voting against something "support"? That's what you're resolutely ignoring here.
You can't call something "bi-partisan" if one side votes nearly unanimously for it and the other almost unanimously against it. That is partisan politics, which is the opposite of bi-partisan.
And to answer your question, it appears that Simpson-Bowles was bi-partisan since the vote is so lopsided. I could say for sure if you had provided the party breakdown, but it certainly looks bi-partisan.
..Because the count of votes in favor include more than Demoncrats.
"And to answer your question, it appears that Simpson-Bowles was bi-partisan since the vote is so lopsided. I could say for sure if you had provided the party breakdown, but it certainly looks bi-partisan."
..A vote held two years after the fact. Still haven't found my original reference!
For what vote? If we're still talking about the Buffet Rule vote, you have it backwards. The Democrats were for and the Republicans against. 51-45 was the vote. 50 Dems, 1 Repubc for. 44 Repubs, 1 Dem against.
BTW, every story I've read so far (five and counting) about that vote calls it "partisan" voting.
I've wasted enough time on this silliness. Have a good one.
..Nope! But I generally require evidence to support the alternate claim. Something those with an inclination to lean left routinely seem to be unwilling to do.
But it is kind of hard to disprove a definition.