Is ObamaCare's "individual mandate" now a tax being levied by the Supreme Court, and not by the Congress? And if so, doesn't that make the mandate constitutionally invalid? (Remember, when it was passed, it was declared to not be a tax!)
JenSemPa
2012/06/30 01:14:27
Where does the Constitution give the Supreme Court the authority to levy taxes?
When "ObamaCare" was passed in 2009, we were specifically told by its authors that it was NOT a tax.
This past Thursday, the Supreme Court said it IS a tax.
If so, doesn't that make it a tax that was NOT enacted by Congress?
When "ObamaCare" was passed in 2009, we were specifically told by its authors that it was NOT a tax.
This past Thursday, the Supreme Court said it IS a tax.
If so, doesn't that make it a tax that was NOT enacted by Congress?

















Article I, Section 8, Clause 1:
The Congress shall have Power to lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States.
Who determines what is in the "general Welfare of the United States?" My guess would be that is the duty of the legislature.