According to the Bible, the Israelites took possession of the land of Israel through a brutal campaign of genocide. Why has the state of Israel not been charged by the International Criminal Court for these crimes against humanity?
Disko Pickle
2012/01/19 06:41:20
There is irrefutable evidence in the books of Genesis, Numbers and Judges that land which is now the state of Israel was conquered and colonized by the ancient Israelites through a brutal campaign of genocide. Among the ethnic groups who were exterminated were the Canaanites, the Amalekites, the Amorites, the Midianites and the Benjaminites. There is no statute of limitations for murder, war crimes and crimes against humanity. Why has the state of Israel not been charged by the International Criminal Court with these crimes?
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««Gingey, the Master Debate... 2012/01/19 06:47:29Only an anti-Semite would demand that Israel be held accountable for its acti...






















Jesus (Salvation) came to save not only the Jews but all Mankind.
<< Zechariah 12:10 >>
"And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son.
absurd-
but golly...
it's no wonder folks like you...
have persecuted the jewish people for so many many centuries-
when did you begin this???...
let me guess...
around 1945...
???
perhaps...
just sayin'...
you kinda failed designing this poll...
sloppy work- my friend...sloppy-
btw i do enjoy ...
your love of the taunt-
but those like us ...
must continually strive...
for excellence-
thus the 1945 jab-
your lack of historical education seems to be showing-
funny-
you missed your own deconstruction-
subtlety is one of those points of the excellence ...
i referred to
guess you are just a lowgrade troll-
disappointing...
i had heard such raves about your skills-
sigh-
I'll give you a hint: this poll has nothing to do with Israel and it has nothing to do with crimes against humanity.
you mean the mythical document justification crap???
pffftttt...
i ignored that-
went more for the root of things-
my mistake...
won't dig so deep next time-
you really are not as bright as everyone said-
just here to poke a pickle-
did not expect it to be so limp-
decidedly unstimulating -
christians have been Attacking Pagans , Heretics, Athiests , Jews , Muslims and other religions for the past 1000 years and when they ran out of enemies they started attacking thier own denominations
Why Khazaric faIry tales are proven lies 8 main facts
1. All jewish groups from Yemeni to Polish Jews have simular haplogroup frequency. If we imagine that somehow Ashkenazi Jews are "Khazarian converts" than their haplogroup distribution couldn't match the haplogroup distribution and frequencies of Moroccon Jews. Both populational groups have mutations and haplogroups which are characteristic to non Muslim Middle East (Samaritanians Druze and Lebanese Christians) and partialy to the Muslim Middle East
All jewish groups have identical frequencies of identical haplogroups proving that they do represent ONE ETHNIC group with a common origin.If the origin of one part of the group is Khazarian than the origin of the rest have to be Khazarian too
However its a historical nonsense to claim that for example Tunesian Jews could have any khazarian ancestors!
2.Samaritanians
Genetic studies of Israelite Samaritanians by Shen 2004, proved that the genetics of Samaritanians clusters with all Jewish groups while are having huge differences with their long time host people ''Palestinian'' Arabs. Ashkenazi Jews are geneticaly identical in populational distance with Samaritanians as well as Sepharadic Jews.
evolution.ut.ee/publications/...
'Table 3 presents the pair-wise genetic di...
Why Khazaric faIry tales are proven lies 8 main facts
1. All jewish groups from Yemeni to Polish Jews have simular haplogroup frequency. If we imagine that somehow Ashkenazi Jews are "Khazarian converts" than their haplogroup distribution couldn't match the haplogroup distribution and frequencies of Moroccon Jews. Both populational groups have mutations and haplogroups which are characteristic to non Muslim Middle East (Samaritanians Druze and Lebanese Christians) and partialy to the Muslim Middle East
All jewish groups have identical frequencies of identical haplogroups proving that they do represent ONE ETHNIC group with a common origin.If the origin of one part of the group is Khazarian than the origin of the rest have to be Khazarian too
However its a historical nonsense to claim that for example Tunesian Jews could have any khazarian ancestors!
2.Samaritanians
Genetic studies of Israelite Samaritanians by Shen 2004, proved that the genetics of Samaritanians clusters with all Jewish groups while are having huge differences with their long time host people ''Palestinian'' Arabs. Ashkenazi Jews are geneticaly identical in populational distance with Samaritanians as well as Sepharadic Jews.
evolution.ut.ee/publications/...
'Table 3 presents the pair-wise genetic distances (Fst)
between 11 populations from AMOVA applied to the
Y-chromosomal and mitochondrial data. For the
Y-chromosome, all Jewish groups, except for the Ethiopians,
are closely related to each other. They do not differ
significantly from Samaritans (0.041) and Druze (0.033),but are different from Palestinians (0.163), Africans
(0.219), and Europeans (0.111) (Table 4).
Nevertheless, the data in Tables 3 and 4
indicate that the Samaritan and Jewish Y-chromosomes
have a much greater affinity than do those of the
Samaritans and their longtime geographical neighbors,
the Palestinians.
3.Jewish haplogroups 50% J,20% E1b1b1c) DOES NOT EXIST among any nation OUTSIDE Middle East. Isolated populations with high J (South Europeans who mixed with Middle Eastern population) DO NOT have J above 30% while population with high E1b1b1c outside middle east do not have high J
4.Religious nonsense
From the late 1I and early second century mass conversions to Judaism are forbiden by Halacaha (Jewish Law) therefore its widely unimaginable that later of this time such conversions happened on mass scale.
5.Historical nonsense
Jewish comunities existed in Europe centuries before alleged Khazar conversion. Jews were expelled from France in III century from Germany in V century.acording to historians Jews consisted 10-15% of Roman empire population
Jews are known to have lived in Greece and Italy in I century B.CE,Austria Germany II and III century A,CE,Turkey north Africa II century B.CE,Iraq and Persia II century B.CE,central Europe,Germany II century A.CE.
6Yiddish
Any language has to have characteristics with common languages.Therefore if Ashkenazi Jews would 6Yiddish
Any language has to have characteristics with common languages.Therefore if Ashkenazi Jews would originate from khazars, Yiddish will for sure have to have some Turcic elements common for the envirviment from where it occured.
However, Yiddish which is known to be spoken from VIII century A.CE doesn't have any Turcic elements. Its highly influenced by German, Hebrew and Aramaic languages but NOT A SINGLE WORD originates from Turcic languages.
7.Culture of Khazars
If Jews are khazars they couldn't/wouldn't somehow forget their roots.Some cultural traditional expresions from Khazar people will somehow have to be present in traditions of the Ashkenazi Jews which would represent similarities with other Turcic people. However no such traditions or customs exist (folk dance, beliefs ,rituals etc)
8.Jewish emigration to Eastern Europe - Poland and Russia en mass is well documented from IX century happened from the WEST and not from EAST as proved by numerous historians.