Question News & Politics
To Non-Believers and Believers (In Christ)... Why does one trust in man's word instead of the word of God (God of the Bible)?
Crusader7 November 05, 2009 00:00:34
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Man has proven throughout history to be self-serving, self-deceiving and self-worshiping.






"Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?
15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?
16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,
18 And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.
If you don't beleive that any gods are real, then this question doesn't really make sense. You don't believe in Islam or Hinduism, so you can relate to what I'm saying. What the Koran and the Upanishads are to you, so the Bible is to non-Christians.
"Man" in the plural is lots of things. Self-serving, self-deceiving, and self-worshipping. But also dedicated to helping others, dedicated to learning and truth, and dedicated to humility. We all have the power to pick which attributes we will attempt to persue and personify. No?