Why is Deuteronomy 32:7-9 changed from the correct translation in every bible and why do some bibles explain this change in the foot notes and others do not?
george pitts
2011/11/14 21:40:59
Here is the American Standard version:
7 Remember the days of old, Consider the years of many generations: Ask
thy father, and he will show thee; Thine elders, and they will tell
thee.
8 When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance, When he
separated the children of men, He set the bounds of the peoples
According to the number of the children of Israel.
9 For Jehovah's portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.
Here is a more correct one:
7 Remember the days of old, and think thou on all the generations; ask thy
father, and he shall tell thee, ask the men of great age, that is, thy
elders, and they shall say to thee.
8 When the Most High God divided the nations, when he separated the sons
of man, he ordained the borders of the peoples according to the number
of the sons of God.
9 For Yahweh's portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.
Do you see any problem here? How could "sons of God" mean the same thing as "sons of Israel"?
If Jehovah were the same as Most High, from whom would he receive Israel from as his inheritance?
What this says is that the Most High gave the nations of man to his sons as their inheritance and Jehovah received Israel and they throw the sons of Israel in there to try and disguise this but it is plain as day what it really says!!
7 Remember the days of old, Consider the years of many generations: Ask
thy father, and he will show thee; Thine elders, and they will tell
thee.
8 When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance, When he
separated the children of men, He set the bounds of the peoples
According to the number of the children of Israel.
9 For Jehovah's portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.
Here is a more correct one:
7 Remember the days of old, and think thou on all the generations; ask thy
father, and he shall tell thee, ask the men of great age, that is, thy
elders, and they shall say to thee.
8 When the Most High God divided the nations, when he separated the sons
of man, he ordained the borders of the peoples according to the number
of the sons of God.
9 For Yahweh's portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.
Do you see any problem here? How could "sons of God" mean the same thing as "sons of Israel"?
If Jehovah were the same as Most High, from whom would he receive Israel from as his inheritance?
What this says is that the Most High gave the nations of man to his sons as their inheritance and Jehovah received Israel and they throw the sons of Israel in there to try and disguise this but it is plain as day what it really says!!
They took Yahweh's name out of Scriptures and put Lord, God, to take the place of Yahweh the true name.
The word Jehovah did not even exist until the 16 century and came from Germany and a German Priest and how it got into the King James.
As you can see the verse is talking about Israel and the inheritance.
He set their boundaries, or he divided them into different kingdoms, according the the number of his (BUL EL)'s son's, which was 70 and each of them inherited his own kingdom. That's verse 8 and being as 70 countries, including Israel (Abraham had not yet been born), did not exist yet, one may suppose these kingdom's were received as they came into existence and not at the time they were given.
Jehovah's lot (inheritance) was Jacob (Israel). verse 9
Now I ask you FIRST- If God (Bull El) and Jehovah are one in the same, who did Jehovah inherit Jacob (Israel) from?? If he was keeping this one kingdom for himself, instead of giving it to one of his 70 sons, then 71 kingdoms would be mentioned instead of only 70 unless God don't know how to add 70 and 1.what is your opinion? Why would God give himself a kingdom as an inheritance.
SECOND- In verse 8, almost every translation in circulation has substituted "sons of Israel" instead of according to the number of his (BUL EL)'s sons. Some but very few, make mention of this change in the footnotes the rest try to pass this on as being original. Why??
How do we get ...
He set their boundaries, or he divided them into different kingdoms, according the the number of his (BUL EL)'s son's, which was 70 and each of them inherited his own kingdom. That's verse 8 and being as 70 countries, including Israel (Abraham had not yet been born), did not exist yet, one may suppose these kingdom's were received as they came into existence and not at the time they were given.
Jehovah's lot (inheritance) was Jacob (Israel). verse 9
Now I ask you FIRST- If God (Bull El) and Jehovah are one in the same, who did Jehovah inherit Jacob (Israel) from?? If he was keeping this one kingdom for himself, instead of giving it to one of his 70 sons, then 71 kingdoms would be mentioned instead of only 70 unless God don't know how to add 70 and 1.what is your opinion? Why would God give himself a kingdom as an inheritance.
SECOND- In verse 8, almost every translation in circulation has substituted "sons of Israel" instead of according to the number of his (BUL EL)'s sons. Some but very few, make mention of this change in the footnotes the rest try to pass this on as being original. Why??
How do we get the same meaning from- "according to the number of God's sons" and "according to the number of the son's of Israel" ? Is Israel God?? No and they don't at all mean the same thing!! PEOPLE have changed God's word in order to make it fit with their own idea of what God should be. This is just one of the most obvious places.
What the Bible-God's Word- very clearly says here, is that when God confused the language and dispersed the people from Babel he divided them into 70 kingdoms and gave one kingdom to each of his 70 sons. Israel went to God's son Jehovah. But that does not fit with our idea of what God should be so it was changed. Changing God's Word cannot be a good thing.