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If a human was born with both a penis and a vagina could he get himself pregnant?

~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~ 2009/02/18 04:54:49
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  • tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ 2009/02/18 05:03:40
    answer
    tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ
    +3
    If a person had both, it is unlikely that their actual reproductive organs inside would be correctly developed enough to reproduce (but I'm not an expert by any stretch). But don't you have to have two different sets of DNA far enough apart genetically to make a baby?

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  • william_shatner4 2010/01/10 13:17:56
  • sunny 2009/11/04 09:27:25
    answer
    sunny
    +1
    then the gay make full enjoy with back side and fournt side
  • Jayce Evans 2009/04/19 04:56:37
    answer
    Jayce Evans
    +1
    no. genetically, they are either male or female. so they can only produce eggs OR sperm, not both.
    the reason for both sets of genitalia is because of a hormonal imbalance while developing in the uterus.

    example: if a female fetus is exposed to testosterone in the uterus, she will develop a penis
    if a male fetus doesn't get enough testosterone in the uterus, he will develop a vagina

    the odds of having fully developed male AND female genitalia are extremely low. generally the opposite-gender-parts are barely developed at all.
  • Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:11:50
    answer
    Tinytim
    +1
    This is really weird because i have asked people this same question before, but i havnt thought to put it up on SH.. but it confuses the hell outta me.. would that be considered incest???
  • ~I $uPP... Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:15:45
    ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~
    lol well i guess that he cant have both the female eggs and the sperm so i guess that it wont be possible and he can still masturebate but nothing will happen because dont the dna's have to be different and stuff
  • Tinytim ~I $uPP... 2009/02/21 05:17:45
    Tinytim
    +1
    i really have no idea it is a strange concept though isn't it??
  • ~I $uPP... Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:22:17
    ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~
    yes ,yes it is
  • KaylieAnn 2009/02/21 05:11:03 (edited)
    answer
    KaylieAnn
    +1
    One. Why is he a he? :]

    Two. My boyfriend ALWAYS asks me this!

    Three. Good point, tammerztehpwnz, I think it wouldn't work cause of the whole needing two sets on DNA and stuffs.
  • ಌMiss Ranaಌ 2009/02/18 09:01:05
    answer
    ಌMiss Ranaಌ
    +1
    No. Most people who are born with both sets of genitalia often only have the reproductive organs of one or the other..

    You can't get yourself pregnant
  • BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:09:22
    answer
    BUNNIES
    +1
    hmm...idk. probably. even if he couldnt reach (really bad mental picture..*shiver*) then they could just extract his sperm and then inject it into him..wow. that just..wow.
  • ~I $uPP... BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:14:16
    ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~
    yeah but like this one person said he might now have both the sperm and the egg so he could masturbate but i dont think he can get himself pregnat
  • BUNNIES ~I $uPP... 2009/02/18 05:16:13
    BUNNIES
    +1
    weird.
  • ~I $uPP... BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:16:46
    ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~
    yeah
  • tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ 2009/02/18 05:03:40
    answer
    tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ
    +3
    If a person had both, it is unlikely that their actual reproductive organs inside would be correctly developed enough to reproduce (but I'm not an expert by any stretch). But don't you have to have two different sets of DNA far enough apart genetically to make a baby?
  • ~I $uPP... tammerz... 2009/02/18 05:05:01
    ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~
    yes that is true i was just wondering because my friend asked me that at school today and i was wondering ever since

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