If a human was born with both a penis and a vagina could he get himself pregnant?

by ~I $uPPoRt $pEEdY!!~ Posted 2009/02/18 04:54:49

Read More

8 votes
Read all 15 opinions
View Results and Demographics + View Demographics

Loading Demographics... Click an icon to see demographic results Display unknown and private
	answer	3 votes	38%
	answer	5 votes	63%

Add a comment above

tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ 2009/02/18 05:03:40

answer

+3
If a person had both, it is unlikely that their actual reproductive organs inside would be correctly developed enough to reproduce (but I'm not an expert by any stretch). But don't you have to have two different sets of DNA far enough apart genetically to make a baby?
>> See Replies

william_shatner4 2010/01/10 13:17:56
sunny 2009/11/04 09:27:25

answer

+1
then the gay make full enjoy with back side and fournt side

reply
Jayce Evans 2009/04/19 04:56:37

answer

+1
no. genetically, they are either male or female. so they can only produce eggs OR sperm, not both.
the reason for both sets of genitalia is because of a hormonal imbalance while developing in the uterus.

example: if a female fetus is exposed to testosterone in the uterus, she will develop a penis
if a male fetus doesn't get enough testosterone in the uterus, he will develop a vagina

the odds of having fully developed male AND female genitalia are extremely low. generally the opposite-gender-parts are barely developed at all.

reply
Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:11:50

answer

+1
This is really weird because i have asked people this same question before, but i havnt thought to put it up on SH.. but it confuses the hell outta me.. would that be considered incest???

reply
~I $uPP... to Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:15:45

lol well i guess that he cant have both the female eggs and the sperm so i guess that it wont be possible and he can still masturebate but nothing will happen because dont the dna's have to be different and stuff

reply
Tinytim to ~I $uPP... 2009/02/21 05:17:45

+1
i really have no idea it is a strange concept though isn't it??

reply
~I $uPP... to Tinytim 2009/02/21 05:22:17

yes ,yes it is

reply
KaylieAnn 2009/02/21 05:11:03 (edited)

answer

+1
One. Why is he a he? :]

Two. My boyfriend ALWAYS asks me this!

Three. Good point, tammerztehpwnz, I think it wouldn't work cause of the whole needing two sets on DNA and stuffs.

reply
ಌMiss Ranaಌ 2009/02/18 09:01:05

answer

+1
No. Most people who are born with both sets of genitalia often only have the reproductive organs of one or the other..

You can't get yourself pregnant

reply
BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:09:22

answer

+1
hmm...idk. probably. even if he couldnt reach (really bad mental picture..*shiver*) then they could just extract his sperm and then inject it into him..wow. that just..wow.

reply
~I $uPP... to BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:14:16

yeah but like this one person said he might now have both the sperm and the egg so he could masturbate but i dont think he can get himself pregnat

reply
BUNNIES to ~I $uPP... 2009/02/18 05:16:13

+1
weird.

reply
~I $uPP... to BUNNIES 2009/02/18 05:16:46

yeah

reply
tammerz/zɹǝɯɯɐʇ 2009/02/18 05:03:40

answer

+3
If a person had both, it is unlikely that their actual reproductive organs inside would be correctly developed enough to reproduce (but I'm not an expert by any stretch). But don't you have to have two different sets of DNA far enough apart genetically to make a baby?

reply
~I $uPP... to tammerz... 2009/02/18 05:05:01

yes that is true i was just wondering because my friend asked me that at school today and i was wondering ever since

reply